A 40-year-old patient presents with difficulty swallowing and significant mood swings. Based on these symptoms, the doctor suspects Huntington’s disease. Which of the following best describes Huntington’s disease?

Question

Answer

It is an autoimmune disorder that attacks healthy cells, leading to neurological damage.

Answer

It is a hereditary genetic disorder that results in the gradual destruction of brain cells.

Answer

It is caused by a viral infection that targets the central nervous system and results in neurological symptoms.

Answer

It primarily affects the peripheral nervous system, causing damage to the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord.

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A 40-year-old patient presents with difficulty swallowing and significant mood s...

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